Because the amp you mentioned was voltage controlled, a reduction in power in my eyes automatically just makes me assume less potential voltage. You're right though that a power decrease by that much would need to be more than a voltage decrease, so my bad. That being said, a current decrease does not mean it will make the headphone sound anemic. It would depend on the headphone and how much you're decreasing it by. You cannot compare a subwoofer to a planar headphone in your context. You also have to realise that not all amplifiers have a flat frequency response, however for the following we are assuming a headphone solid-state amplifier, and all the ones we have been mentioning thus far are flat. Regardless, the solderdude post does not improve your argument because he is not saying that lower frequencies require more power. He is referencing music here to help with his explanation. If the song was completely flat [unrealistic, but hypothetical, we'll go back to the song in a sec], the bass would not require more power than the rest of frequencies in the music. Going back to the song he is referencing in that post, the bass does require more power [the same can be said for most music]. However, when we talk about the volume levels an amp is able to provide to a headphone, it's if a sound of 0 dB is playing, when this is obviously not the case all the time [e.g. a song may peak at -10 db]. Regardless, the bass is not going to exceed this [ideally of course, for obvious reasons]. So, if we say that the NX4 is 250 mW at 40 ohm [hypothetical, it doesn't matter]. Now, let's say you set the dial to a position that puts 40 mW into 40 ohm, and it's powering the Sundaras [very loud for most songs fyi, do not do this without good reason]. This is just hypothetical, I'm not saying that you should do this measuring, or that everyone has the equipment to do so, it's not the point. Now, if the song played is the very same one in the graph on solderdude's post, then the bass will require the most power. However, the bass will never exceed 40 mW of power drawn [the song in the graph doesn't look like it peaks at 0 dB, so it won't get anywhere near there]. It will require more power than the rest of the frequencies though, but again will not exceed that 40 mW. The bass in this song does not require more power than a 0 dB 1 kHz test tone at the same position on the NX4 dial. Unless you have actual evidence to back yourself up [the solderdude post is not agreeing with what you're saying] this idea that bass requires more power is wrong. Lastly, once again, it's fine for a company to market their products. That's all the buyer's guide is. It's not disrespectful to pick apart marketing, there's no need to get so upset about it. And I could care less about disrespecting to you, it's not like you're a saint. No one deserves respect, it is up to the individual to provide that to someone, if they believe the person is someone they should respect. That doesn't mean they treat the other person like trash, mind you, that's not what I mean. Unless you can actually provide evidence that planars require 1 W into 32 ohms, one from a credible source, this is still mute. Not Reddit posts, random Drop posts, etc. I think Solderdude is a credible source but I do think that a scientific write up with sources is always better, but I don't think that matters too much here anyway. This is over if you're not going to provide any factual evidence. I'm pretty sure you're just trolling at this point so I don't think this is worth going further. I'm worried your next post will just be a bolded blob of text at this rate. I think you have quite a ways to go. Perhaps one day you will realise that adding ellipses, bolding words, etc. does not otherwise make false statement a true one, and it does not substitute facts. Nor does anyone care for your pathetic attempts to use them just to highlight "I'm right, you're wrong" sentences with nothing to back them up. Love to know what books or scientific papers you're talking about, but I'd rather they not come from your a**. Edit: because I don't want to argue any further when it is pointless and a waste of time for both parties, I'm just going to explain the solderdude post a little better here: As solderdude mentioned, an amp does not "discriminate between frequencies". At no point does he say that "bass requires more power", or that the "amp will provide more power to the bass". Here, the larger "voltage excursions" Solderdude mentions of the bass are due to both the recorded song example having more bass, and the user's desire to increase the bass. When solderdude explains the clipping, what he means is that an increase in bass at the max potential voltage of the amp will result in clipping because the amp cannot provide it, and thus this clipping will effect all frequencies, cutting them out. The nwavguy post is largely the same issue [I'd cited him earlier in the thread, I've read his blog posts many times and it's where I've learnt a lot of stuff in the past]. I'm not going to continue with these quote the person above posts, point out where they're wrong, I legitimately don't have a whole lot of time in my life to do that, even if it only takes a quarter of an hour. I hope the solderdude thing makes more sense now, but, if not, read the nwavguy post linked below in this thread, which, again, does not say you need 1 watt into 32 ohms for a planar, nor does it say that amps give more power to bass frequencies over other frequencies, but it does explain power. Read it in your own context, however, do not read it in conjunction with people's opinions on what his blog means [myself included!]. It's not that complicated anyway.
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