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Terms in this set [186]
Which statement about enzymes is FALSE?
-Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
-Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute.
-Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
-****Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to
assume their active form.
Enzyme characteristics
-Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
-Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute.
-Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
-Each enzyme is chemically specific.
-Some enzymes are purely protein.
-Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.
Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?
-Each enzyme is chemically specific.
-****Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.
-Some enzymes are purely protein.
-Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic steps involved in enzyme activity?
-****The substrate absorbs chemical energy from the enzyme after
binding to its active site.
-The enzyme releases the product[s] of the reaction.
-The enzyme's active site binds to the substrate[s] on which it acts, temporarily forming an enzyme-substrate complex.
-The enzyme-substrate complex undergoes internal rearrangements that form the product[s].
Three basic steps involved in enzyme activity?
-The enzyme releases the product[s] of the reaction.
-The enzyme's
active site binds to the substrate[s] on which it acts, temporarily forming an enzyme-substrate complex.
-The enzyme-substrate complex undergoes internal rearrangements that form the product[s]
What is the source of the activation energy in these reactions?
the kinetic energy of the reactants
Which of the following statements is true regarding the enzyme-catalyzed reaction compared to the uncatalyzed reaction?
Less energy input is required to start the reaction in the presence of enzyme.
Synthesis
This figure shows a dehydration synthesis reaction between two monomers forming, resulting in a larger molecule. Such reactions are synthesis reactions.
Transport Work
Mechanical Work
Relaxed smooth muscle cell to contracted smooth muscle cell
ATP is an unstable, high-energy molecule that provides body cells with a form of energy that is immediately usable.
True
ATP
ATP is the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells, and it provides a form of energy that is immediately usable by all body cells. Chemically, the triphosphate tail of ATP can be compared to a tightly coiled spring ready to uncoil with tremendous energy when the catch is released. Actually, ATP is a very unstable high-energy molecule because its three negatively charged phosphate groups are closely packed and repel each other.
What is the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells?
ATP
How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it?
one
Which nutrients function primarily as an energy source for cells?
carbohydrates
Which nutrient molecule CANNOT be used in the oxidative pathways?
-fatty
acids
-****cholesterol
-protein
-glucose
Stages of cellular respiration
1. glycolisis
2. citric acid cycle
3. electron transport
how food molecules reach the body's cells and fuel cellular respiration. Start with the ingestion of food on the left.
1. eating food provides fuel and building blocks for your
body
2. after food is broken down in the digestive system, it is transported to cells via the circulatory system
3. fuel molecules are broken down further in glycolisis and the citric acid cycle [also called the krebs cycle]
4. ATP is produced with the help of the electron transport chain
Cellular respiration equation
glucose + 6 O2 ===== 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP
sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.
glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain
What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy
Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?
glycolysis
In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain?
mitochondrion
Which statement describes glycolysis?
This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose.
Which statement describes the citric acid cycle?
This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.
Which statement describes the electron transport chain?
This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.
Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell?
glucose
What serves as the energy source for the proton pumps in oxidative phosphorylation?
electrons passing from transfer molecules to oxygen
The movement of H+ through the ATP synthase is best described as an example of __________.
facilitated diffusion
Which process during which oxygen is consumed?
electron transport
The term metabolism is best defined as ________.
the sum of all biochemical reactions in the body
Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.
breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
Anabolism includes reactions in which ________.
larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones
Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?
oxidative phosphorylation
What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work?
phosphorylation
Which of the following pathways is INCORRECTLY matched with a description?
-anabolism: building larger molecules from smaller ones
-citric acid cycle: aerobic pathway
-glycolysis: anaerobic
respiration
-****Gluconeogenesis: using glucose to build noncarbohydrate structures
pathways
-anabolism: building larger molecules from smaller ones
-citric acid cycle: aerobic pathway
-glycolysis: anaerobic respiration
What is the primary function of cellular respiration?
to regenerate ATP
Which of the following does NOT describe a multicellular exocrine gland?
-tubular glands
-****hormone glands
-simple glands
-alveolar glands
multicellular exocrine glands
-tubular glands
-simple glands
-alveolar glands
Pseudostratified epithelia are well adapted to the digestive system because the cilia increase the surface area for absorption.
False
How are endocrine and exocrine glands different from each other?
Endocrine glands have no ducts.
You observe a tissue under a microscope. There appears to be a lumen on one side of the tissue. Lining this lumen, the cells seem to have long, fingerlike projections. Beneath the projections, the cells seem to have the shape of shoeboxes and are packed tightly together. What type of tissue are you looking at?
simple columnar epithelia
Injured cartilage might heal more quickly if a treatment were discovered that would __________.
stimulate blood vessels to develop within cartilage
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
simple columnar
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.
endocrine
Choose which tissue would line the uterine [fallopian] tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.
ciliated simple columnar epithelium
a macrophage
phagocytizes foreign materials such as bacteria and debris. It can be identified by its large size.
Marfan's syndrome is a disease associated with faulty manufacture of the extracellular protein fibrillin. Since this is a component of elastin, in which cells would the damaged gene be expressed?
a fibroblast, which is the primary producer of the major fibers, including elastin and fibrillin, in connective tissue proper. It can be identified by its numerous cell extensions.
Which tissue is correctly paired with its primary cell type?
-cartilage;
fibroblast
-****bone; osteoblast
-connective tissue proper; chondroblast
-bone; fibrocyte
Bone
osteoblast
After open heart surgery, the heart's pumping efficiency may be reduced because__________.
both adhesions and fibrosis will interfere with the heart's normal pumping activity and reduce its effectiveness
Which of the following is NOT found in cartilage but is found in bone?
-living cells
-****blood vessels
-lacunae
-organic fibers
found in cartilage
-living cells
-lacunae
-organic fibers
found in bone
blood vessels
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.
collagen fibers
Why are adipose tissue, blood, and bone all considered to be connective tissues?
They have a common origin: mesenchyme.
Connective tissues are made of different combinations of ground substance and fibers. As you compare slides of connective tissues, which would most likely be the strongest type of connective tissue based on the composition of ground substance and fibers?
connective tissues high in collagen fibers
Which is the most atypical connective tissue since it does NOT act as a binding or packaging material under normal conditions or provide structural support?
blood
Under a microscope you observe a tissue that appears to have long fibers that appear striated. The nuclei are pushed off to the side of the fibers. The tissue looks very vascular. What type of tissue are you observing?
skeletal muscle tissue
All muscle cells contain striations.
False
Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristic of skeletal muscle.
False
Predict what would happen if a lung's visceral membrane were pulled away from its parietal membrane still attached to the chest wall.
Loss of membrane adhesive force would cause lung collapse.
Which event must precede all others during tissue repair?
Inflammation occurs near the affected cells.
Which tissues have little to no functional regenerative capacity?
cardiac muscle and nervous tissue in the brain and spinal cord
bone cells
supports and protects, stores calcium
Blood
composed of cell in a fluid matrix
Fibrocartilage
provides tensil strength w/ the ability to absorb compressive shock
dense regular connective tissue
forms tendons and ligaments
adipose tissue
supports and protects, insulates against heat loss, reserve fuel source
Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common?
elastic fibers
Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.
active
The term ________ means each enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction.
specificity
All of the following can affect enzyme activity.
-temperature
-pH
-enzyme concentration
-cofactors
Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration [the complete oxidation of glucose]?
glycolysis, citric acid [Krebs] cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
simple columnar
Which of the following is true about epithelia?
Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.
stratified squamous
Choose which tissue would line the uterine [fallopian] tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.
ciliated simple columnar epithelium
Generally speaking, connective tissues are largely non-living extracellular matrix. Which of the following is an EXCEPTION?
-****adipose
-blood
-bone
-areolar
Generally speaking, connective tissues are largely non-living extracellular matrix.
-blood
-bone
-areolar
What are the three main components of connective tissue?
ground substance, fibers, and cells
Which cell produces the protein fibers in areolar connective tissue?
fibroblast
The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is
collagen
________ attach skeletal muscles to bones, and ________ connect one bone to another.
Tendons; ligaments
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system, except
protection of underlying tissue.
excretion of salts and wastes.
maintenance of body temperature.
****synthesis of vitamin C.
provision of sensation.
function of the integumentary system
protection of underlying tissue.
excretion of salts and wastes.
maintenance of body temperature.
provision of sensation.
Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the
stratum corneum
Water loss due to evaporation of fluid that has penetrated directly through the skin is termed ________ perspiration.
insensible
A dendritic or Langerhan cell is a specialized ________.
phagocytic cell
The two components of the integumentary system are the
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are
carotene and melanin.
Which statement about hairs is false?
Eyebrows are terminal hairs.
Terminal hairs are in the axilla.
Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.
A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.
****Club hairs are ingrown hairs.
Hairs
Eyebrows are terminal hairs.
Terminal hairs are in the axilla.
Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.
A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.
Types of hair
Club hairs are terminal hairs.
An ingrown hair is one that is curved at the end and fails to follow the normal follicle channel to the surface, with the free end becoming embedded in the skin.
The hair then acts like a foreign body, and inflammation and creating pus formation.
The type of burn that is the most painful
second-degree burn.
Treatment of full-thickness burns includes which of the following?
replacing fluids
increasing caloric intake
preventing infection
assisting tissue repair
Cell division would be most common among cells in which of the layers?
D. Cells migrate upwards through the epidermis after being generated by mitosis in the stratum basale.
Which epidermal layers would be LEAST likely to develop cancer?
A. Cell of this layer are dead and do not participate in mitosis.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
-Langerhans cells activate the immune system.
-Melanin provides protection against ultraviolet [UV]
radiation.
-Keratinocytes produce a fibrous protein to protect the epidermis.
-****Tactile cells anchor the skin to the body.
Tactile cells
in conjunction with their sensory nerve endings, function as touch receptors. The hypodermis, not tactile cells, anchors skin to the body.
Pigment can be found in several layers of the epidermis. In which layers would you expect to find the cells that produce melanin?
Stratum Basale. Between 10 and 25% of the cells in the stratum basale are melanocytes that produce the melanin.
Keratin protects skin cell DNA from the damaging effects of ultraviolet [UV] radiation. Is this statement true or false?
False
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.
accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
stratum basale
Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. These cell junctions serve the body by ________.
preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis
Which dermal layer is responsible for the dermal properties of skin that are evident as cleavage lines?
the reticular layer
The dermis has a collection of dense regular connective tissues with large amounts of collagen arranged in a regular pattern that creates cleavage lines.
The source of the fluid that accumulates in a blister is________.
the plasma of the blood flowing through the numerous dermal blood vessels
The epidermis is avascular but highly
innervated; the underlying dermis lacks the number of nerve endings but is rich in blood vessels.
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?
The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
The papillary layer of the dermis is composed of loosely packed connective tissue with numerous peg-like projections that provide a great deal of surface area connecting the dermis to the epidermis. Which of the statements below do not represent benefits provided by the papillary layer's anatomy?
-The looseness allows for phagocytes to roam through the tissue and search for infection.
-The spaces in the connective tissue allow many small blood vessels to deliver nutrients and pickup waste
diffusing from the superficial epidermal layers.
-The high surface area allows for a stronger connection of dermis to epidermis.
-****The looseness allows for easy separation of the dead cell layer of epidermis to be shed.
William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________.
the stratum basale but not the dermal layers
A surgeon opens her patient by cutting the integument parallel to the cleavage lines of the dermis [tension lines]. This will result in ________.
faster healing of the skin and less scarring
In people with lighter skin, respiratory failure can lead to a change in the color of the skin. Which pigmentation factor is affecting this change?
hemoglobin
As the blood becomes hypoxic, hemoglobin is carrying less oxygen. This deoxygenated state leads to the condition known as cyanosis.
Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback?
Thickening of epidermis to form a callus in places where the skin is exposed to friction.
What is the role of the hair follicle?
The hair follicle serves as an anchor for the hair shaft.
The arrector pili muscle's predominant, useful function in humans is to ________.
assisting in the release of sebum from nearby sebaceous glands
The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.
False
Joe just burned himself on a hot pot. and the burn is quite painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn.
False
Which of the following is NOT a function of sebum?
-protection from bacteria
-prevention of water loss
-lubrication of the
skin
-****protection from UV radiation
function of sebum
-protection from bacteria
-prevention of water loss
-lubrication of the skin
You discover a new type of gland associated with the skin. Chemical analysis of the product shows a secretion has a pH of 4, consists of 99% water, and contains traces of normal electrolytes including urea, vitamin C, and dermicidin. There are no traces of fats or proteins. How would you classify this new gland?
eccrine gland
difference between eccrine sweat glands and apocrine sweat glands?
The secretions of apocrine sweat glands contain more fat and protein than do the secretions of eccrine sweat glands.
If a person were born without eccrine glands, what skin function would he or she have a hard time completing?
thermoregulation
In the presence of sunlight, Vitamin D precursors are produced. This is important for the transport of sodium in our intestines. Is this statement true or false?
False
In addition to protection [physical and chemical barrier], the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?
It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.
During cold weather, blood vessels located in the dermis undergo vasoconstriction restricting blood flow into the skin. This produces additional body heat by routing blood to what effector organ?
skeletal muscle
The biggest risk factor for the development of skin cancer is excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation from sunlight. Exposure to UV light in a tanning booth is safer. Is this statement true or false?
False
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
by using the "rule of nines"
Susan sat out in the sun watching a baseball game. She developed small blisters on her unprotected shoulders and neck. What type of burn is represented by the formation of the blisters?
second-degree burn
Which type of cartilage is NOT properly matched with its function?
-fibrocartilage; withstand pressure and stretch
-****skeletal cartilage; reinforce airways
-elastic cartilage; withstand repetitive bending
-hyaline cartilage; cover the ends of bones
cartilage and its function
-fibrocartilage; withstand pressure and stretch
-elastic cartilage; withstand repetitive bending
-hyaline cartilage; cover the ends of
bones
Which statement is NOT true about the osteon?
-****The osteon absorbs stress in all directions equally.
-The more osteons in a bone, the stronger the bone is.
-Strength of the osteon comes from the inorganic salts secreted into the bone matrix.
-The osteon is not brittle because of the organic collagen in the matrix.
statements of osteons
-The more osteons in a bone, the stronger the bone is.
-Strength of the osteon comes from the inorganic salts secreted into the bone matrix.
-The osteon is not brittle because of the organic collagen in the matrix.
The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
True
Osteoid-producing osteoblasts must rely upon this organelle to produce primary structures leading to the formation of collagen and calcium-binding proteins.
ribosomes
What would be the physical sign that a bone CANNOT continue longitudinal growth?
an epiphyseal line
Which hormone is NOT matched with its appropriate function?
-****calcitonin;
increases blood calcium levels -growth hormone;lengthens bones
-osteocalcin; regulates glucose metabolism
-leptin; regulates bone density
Hormones and its function
-growth hormone;lengthens bones
-osteocalcin; regulates glucose metabolism
-leptin; regulates bone density
Which of the following is UNLIKELY to affect bone remodeling?
-low blood Ca2+ concentration
-mechanical stress
-parathyroid hormone
-****glucagon
affect bone remodeling
-low blood Ca2+ concentration
-mechanical stress
-parathyroid hormone
How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment?
By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will reabsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed.
In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________.
temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses
Remodeling a kitchen to add additional cabinets to existing ones also means adding extra support. In a similar respect, bone remodeling alters bone structure without adversely affecting bone strength. What divalent cation is required to create additional bone matrix support?
calcium
Mechanical stress on weight-bearing bones plays a large part in bone remodeling. What single factor plays the largest role in maintaining adequate bone strength?
gravity
Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children?
calcitonin
PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?
calcitriol
Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone [PTH] could alter plasma calcium levels? [Which one of the following is FALSE?]
-increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
-increase osteoclasts
-****increase osteoblasts on bone
a way that parathyroid hormone [PTH] could alter plasma calcium levels?
-increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
-increase osteoclasts
Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?
calcitriol
Why, or why not, is swimming recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis?
Swimming is not recommended to prevent osteoporosis, as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise.
When chondrocytes in lacunae divide and form new matrix, it leads to an expansion of the cartilage tissue from within. This process is called __________.
interstitial growth
The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.
fibrocartilage
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
-The sternum is an example of a flat bone.
-****Long bones include all limb bones except the patella.
-Sesamoid bones form within certain tendons.
-Irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones.
In which of the labeled parts of the adult long bone would hematopoietic tissue be located?
Spongy bone
Long bone labeled
long bone labeled
13. Endosteum
14. Yellow bone marrow
15. Compact Bone
16. Periosteum
17. Perforating Fibers
18. Nutrient Arteries
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption [breaking bone down] for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
osteoclast
When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________.
osteocyte
Choose the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient.
hip bone
Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it.
trochanter
Which of the following statements is true?
-Osteoclasts are important in removing calcium from the blood stream.
-Bone would be more brittle with more collagen in the matrix.
-The red marrow in the medullary cavity produces our red blood cells.
-****Spongy bone is well adapted to accept stress in many
directions, which makes it good for shock absorption.
good for shock absorption
Spongy bone is well adapted to accept stress in many directions, which makes it good for shock absorption.
There are several components to a functional osteon. Changes to which of the following components would make the bones less strong overall and cause the bones to bend under a person's body weight?
hydroxyapatite
lack of formation of certain skull bones and the clavicle [cleidocranial dysostosis]
This genetic disorder of the processes of intramembranous ossification can result in these bones being deformed or even missing.
During bone growth, which event is most significant at the surface indicated by the letter B?
-calcification of the cartilage matrix
-Calcification of the cartilage matrix leads to its deterioration and replacement by bone.
During bone growth, which significant event occurs at the surface indicated by the letter C?
-appositional growth
-Growth in width involves the adding of layers of lamellar [compact] bone along the bone's outer surface. This
process of growth by "layering" is termed appositional growth and is distinct from growth by expansion of the interior matrix [interstitial growth].
Which event has to precede all others during endochondral ossification?
A cartilage model is formed.
What is the weakest part of a developing, adolescent long bone?
the epiphyseal plate
During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is __________.
growth hormone
Hypercalcemia can be caused by_________.
hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
Which of the following most directly controls bone remodeling?
mechanical stress and hormones
The correct order [from start to finish] of fracture repair is __________.
hematoma formation, soft callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling
Which of the following pairings is correct?
-osteomalacia; excessive mineralization of the bone
-****Paget's
disease; excessive and haphazard bone deposition and resorption
-osteoporosis; increased bone density
-rickets; deficiency of vitamin A
The type of burn that is the most painful
second-degree burn.
Which statement about hairs is false?
-Eyebrows are terminal hairs.
-Terminal hairs are in the axilla.
-Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.
-A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.
-****Club hairs are ingrown hairs.
true statements about hairs
-Eyebrows are terminal hairs.
-Terminal hairs are in the axilla.
-Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.
-A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.
Treatment of full-thickness burns includes which of the following?
replacing fluids
increasing caloric intake
preventing infection
assisting tissue repair
A dendritic or Langerhan cell is a specialized ________.
phagocytic cell
The two components of the integumentary system are the
cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are
carotene and melanin.
Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system, except
-protection of underlying tissue.
-excretion of salts and wastes.
-maintenance of body temperature.
-****synthesis of vitamin C.
-provision of sensation.
Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the
stratum corneum.
Water loss due to evaporation of fluid that has penetrated directly through the skin is termed ________ perspiration.
insensible
...
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